Set Theoryhard
0:00.0

Consider the family of sets An=(0,1+1n]A_n = \left(0, 1 + \frac{1}{n}\right] for n∈Nn \in \mathbb{N} and Bm=[1−1m,2)B_m = \left[1 - \frac{1}{m}, 2\right) for m∈Nm \in \mathbb{N}. Determine the set (⋂n=1∞An)∪(⋃m=1∞Bm)\left(\bigcap_{n=1}^{\infty} A_n\right) \cup \left(\bigcup_{m=1}^{\infty} B_m\right).