Evaluate the statement (∃x)(P(x)∧Q(x)) ⟹ ((∃xP(x))∧(∃xQ(x)))(\exists x)(P(x) \land Q(x)) \implies ((\exists x P(x)) \land (\exists x Q(x)))(∃x)(P(x)∧Q(x))⟹((∃xP(x))∧(∃xQ(x))). Is it a tautology in First-Order Logic?
No, it is a contradiction
No, it is contingent
Yes, it is a tautology
Only for finite domains