If ∫abf(x) dx=0\int_{a}^{b} f(x) \, dx = 0∫abf(x)dx=0, what does this necessarily imply?
f(x)=0f(x) = 0f(x)=0 for all xxx
a=ba = ba=b
The net area between aaa and bbb is zero
f(x)f(x)f(x) is positive